Previous Year PaperOfficial Answer Key

WBPSC AE Civil 2020 — Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

The complete WBPSC Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2020 paper — all 100 MCQs with the official Series-A answer key and brief explanations. Read it below, or attempt it as a full-length, timed mock test with an instant scorecard, rank and subject-wise analysis.

120 min
Duration
100
Questions
200
Total Marks
+2 / −2/3
Marking

The WBPSC Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2020 examination was conducted by the West Bengal Public Service Commission for recruitment to Assistant Engineer (Civil) posts. The paper carried 100 objective questions for 200 marks over 2 hours, with +2 marks for each correct answer and −2/3 mark deducted for each wrong answer. Below is the complete question paper (Series A) with the official answer key and short explanations, covering all core Civil Engineering subjects.

Subject distribution
Strength of Materials · 20Transportation Engineering · 11Soil Mechanics · 11Structural Analysis · 10Environmental Engineering · 9Building Materials · 7RCC · 7Surveying · 6Steel Structures · 5Fluid Mechanics · 4Hydrology · 4Irrigation Engineering · 3Construction Management · 2Engineering Mechanics · 1
Full paper

All 100 questions with answers

1

When a chain of designated length L and actual length L' is used for measuring a line, the true length of the line will be

A. (L/L') × measured length
B. (L'/L) × measured length
C. (L'−L) × measured length
D. (L−L') × measured length
Answer: B. True length of a line = (L'/L) × measured length (L' = actual chain length, L = designated length).
2

Continuity equation in a pipe flow is based on the principle of conservation of

A. mass
B. energy
C. momentum
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Continuity equation expresses conservation of mass.
3

What will be the coefficient of passive earth pressure, at a depth of 8 m in cohesionless soil with an angle of internal friction of 30°, when the water rises to the ground level?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
Answer: C. Kp = (1+sinφ)/(1−sinφ) = 1.5/0.5 = 3. Water table does not change the coefficient.
4

When a bar is subjected to a decrease of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the stress induced in the bar is

A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Shear stress
D. Thermal stress
Answer: A. Prevented contraction on cooling induces tensile stress.
5

A reflux valve is also known as

A. safety valve
B. scour valve
C. air valve
D. check valve
Answer: D. A reflux (non-return) valve is a check valve.
6

Theoretically, the best cross-section for a lined canal is

A. semicircular
B. triangular
C. trapezoidal
D. egg shaped
Answer: C. For a lined canal the trapezoidal section is adopted as the most practical and economical section.
7

Two cantilever beams A and B are shown in the figure. The ratio of maximum deflection of beam A to beam B is. (Beam A: UDL over full length; Beam B: point load, L/2 marks)

A. 8/7
B. 16/7
C. 32/7
D. 48/7
Answer: D. (Figure-based) Per the official WBPSC key, the ratio of maximum deflections is option (D).
8

The rigid jointed frame (EI = Constant) shown will

A. sway to right
B. sway to left
C. No sway
D. None of the above
Answer: C. (Figure-based) The frame does not sway ('No sway') per the official WBPSC key.
9

Damage due to Alkali Aggregate Reaction in a concrete structure is mainly due to the presence of

A. cement with high alkali + reactive aggregate
B. cement with high alkali + moisture
C. cement with high alkali + aggregate + moisture
D. cement with high alkali + reactive aggregate + moisture
Answer: D. ASR requires high-alkali cement, reactive (silica) aggregate AND moisture together.
10

A cantilever column is subjected to an axial load. If a linear spring of stiffness K is attached laterally at the free end, the critical buckling load will

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. depending on the value of K may increase or decrease
Answer: A. A lateral spring adds restraint at the free end, raising the critical buckling load.
11

A beam carries a UDL w kN/m over its whole length of 8 m, with overhangs of 2 m on each side (4 m between supports). The bending moment (kNm) at the centre is

A. 2w (sagging)
B. w (sagging)
C. zero
D. w (hogging)
Answer: C. Midspan BM = (w/8)(l² − 4a²) = (w/8)(4² − 4·2²) = (w/8)(16−16) = 0.
12

Ordinary rails are made of

A. mild steel
B. cast iron
C. wrought iron
D. high carbon steel
Answer: D. Rails are rolled from high-carbon steel for hardness and wear resistance.
13

A sand having fineness modulus of 3 is regarded as

A. fine
B. medium
C. coarse
D. unusable
Answer: C. FM ≈ 2.9–3.2 corresponds to coarse sand.
14

In a four-span continuous beam of equal spans, to obtain the maximum hogging bending moment at support B (next to the end support from the left), the live load should be placed

A. (load pattern A)
B. (load pattern B)
C. (load pattern C)
D. (load pattern D)
Answer: C. (Figure-based) Maximum hogging at support B corresponds to load pattern (C) per the official key.
15

The PCU (Passenger Car Unit) value for a car on an urban road is

A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
Answer: B. The passenger car is the reference unit, PCU = 1.0.
16

For a saturated cohesive soil, a tri-axial test yields the angle of internal friction equal to zero. The test conducted is called

A. Consolidated drained test
B. Consolidated un-drained test
C. Unconfined compression test
D. Unconsolidated un-drained test
Answer: D. A UU (unconsolidated-undrained) test on saturated clay gives φu = 0.
17

The equivalent permeability for flow perpendicular to three soil layers (depths Z1, Z2, Z3; permeabilities K1, K2, K3) is

A. (Z1+Z2+Z3)/(Z1/K1+Z2/K2+Z3/K3)
B. (K1Z1+K2Z2+K3Z3)/(Z1+Z2+Z3)
C. (Z1K1+Z2K2+Z3K3)/(Z1+Z2+Z3)
D. (Z1+Z2+Z3)(K1Z1+K2Z2+K3Z3)
Answer: A. Flow perpendicular to layers → harmonic mean: Keq = ΣZ / Σ(Z/K).
18

A propped cantilever beam of span L is subjected to a central concentrated load P. The collapse load P for plastic moment capacity Mp is

A. 2Mp/L
B. 4Mp/L
C. 6Mp/L
D. 8Mp/L
Answer: C. Hinges at fixed end and under load: P(L/2) = Mpθ + Mp(2θ) = 3Mpθ ⇒ P = 6Mp/L.
19

The expansion (unsoundness) of Portland Cement is caused by

A. voids
B. iron oxide
C. free silica
D. free lime
Answer: D. Free lime (and free magnesia) cause delayed expansion/unsoundness.
20

The point on the Earth's surface directly above the point where an earthquake originates is called

A. Focus
B. Hypocentre
C. Epicentre
D. Gust point
Answer: C. The surface point above the focus/hypocentre is the epicentre.
21

With a decrease in lateral stiffness of a regular typical building, the design horizontal seismic coefficient will

A. increase
B. decrease
C. depends on the height
D. depends on base dimensions
Answer: A. Per the official WBPSC key, the design horizontal seismic coefficient increases.
22

In steel roof trusses, bracings should be provided at top-chord level

A. in the central panels
B. in the end panels
C. in the last but one end panel
D. depending on span/depth ratio
Answer: B. End-panel bracing provides lateral stability to the compression (top) chord.
23

A tube of outer diameter 150 mm is welded all round to a plate. Weld strength = 500 N/mm (LSM, IS 800-2017). The maximum torsional moment applicable so the weld will not fail, with partial load factor = 1.5, is

A. 5.625π kNm
B. 3.75π kNm
C. 5.625π kNm
D. 3.75π kNm
Answer: A. Weld torsional capacity T = 500 × 2π × 75² = 5.625π kN·mm = 5.625π kNm (official key).
24

A differential manometer is used to measure

A. atmospheric pressure
B. pressure in pipes and channels
C. pressure in a venturimeter
D. difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: D. A differential manometer measures the pressure difference between two points.
25

When a vehicle traces a horizontal curve, it is subjected to centrifugal force in ___ direction.

A. inward
B. outward
C. forward
D. backward
Answer: B. Centrifugal force acts radially outward.
26

For lack-of-fit problems in a truss, the truss is at least statically

A. determinate both externally and internally
B. indeterminate internally
C. indeterminate externally
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Lack-of-fit stresses arise only in indeterminate structures; internal indeterminacy is sufficient.
27

The range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Answer: B. Maximum range on level ground occurs at 45°.
28

For reversal of stresses, the most suitable bolt generally used in steel structures is

A. Black bolt
B. Turned bolt
C. HSFG bolt
D. Snap headed bolt
Answer: C. HSFG (high-strength friction-grip) bolts best resist fatigue/stress reversal (no slip).
29

The main circular ring beam in a typical Intze-type overhead water tank, supported on columns placed symmetrically in a circle, is subjected to

A. shear force and bending moment at the column support
B. shear force, bending moment and torsional moment at the column support
C. shear force and bending moment at the mid span between two column supports
D. shear force, bending moment and torsional moment at the mid span between two column supports
Answer: A. At a column support of a circular ring beam, torsion is zero (by symmetry); the section carries maximum shear force and (hogging) bending moment. Torsion is maximum between supports.
30

The frame consists of members AO, OB and OC of equal length and equal EI, with a moment M applied at joint O (far ends fixed). The magnitude of bending moment at C will be

A. 8M/7
B. 4M/7
C. M/6
D. M/8
Cancelled question: This question was CANCELLED by WBPSC; marks were awarded to all candidates. (Provisional analysis: M/6.)
31

Creep strain is due to

A. Dead load only
B. Live load only
C. Cyclic load only
D. Independent of load
Answer: A. Creep develops under sustained (permanent/dead) load.
32

The maximum dose of plasticiser and superplasticiser for concrete, in general, is restricted to

A. 0.5 and 1.0 respectively
B. 1.0 and 1.5 respectively
C. 0.5 and 2.0 respectively
D. 1.0 and 2.0 respectively
Answer: D. General upper limits ≈ 1.0% (plasticiser) and 2.0% (superplasticiser) by weight of cement.
33

Curvature correction to a staff reading in differential levelling is

A. always subtractive
B. always zero
C. always additive
D. always dependent on latitude
Answer: A. Curvature makes the reading too large, so its correction is always subtractive.
34

In the limit state method of design, which is NOT a correct load combination as per IS 456-2000? (DL=dead, LL=live, WL=wind, SL=seismic)

A. 1.5 DL + 1.5 LL
B. 1.5 DL + 1.5 SL
C. 0.9 DL + 1.5 SL
D. 1.5 DL + 1.0 SL
Answer: D. Valid combinations include 1.5(DL+LL), 1.5(DL±EL) and 0.9DL±1.5EL. '1.5DL + 1.0SL' is not a standard combination.
35

The development length of reinforcing steel of diameter d in compression, for M30 concrete and Fe 500 TMT bars (design bond strength for plain bars in tension = 1.5 MPa), is

A. 30 d
B. 36 d
C. 45 d
D. 50 d
Answer: B. τbd = 1.5×1.6 (deformed)×1.25 (compression) = 3.0 MPa; Ld = (0.87×500×d)/(4×3.0) = 36.25d ≈ 36d.
36

For TMT (Thermo-Mechanically Treated) reinforcing bars of grade Fe 500, choose the correct statement.

A. Yield stress = 500 MPa
B. 0.2% proof stress = 500 MPa
C. Ultimate tensile strength = 500 MPa
D. Breaking strength = 500 MPa
Answer: A. TMT bars exhibit a definite yield point, so Fe 500 denotes a characteristic yield stress of 500 MPa.
37

The centre-to-centre spacing of distribution (secondary) steel for shrinkage and temperature in a slab, as per IS 456-2000, should not be more than (d = effective depth)

A. 3d or 300 mm whichever is smaller
B. 3d or 450 mm whichever is smaller
C. 5d or 300 mm whichever is smaller
D. 5d or 450 mm whichever is smaller
Answer: C. Per the official WBPSC key the marked answer is option (C).
38

A symmetrical, perfectly rigid footing resting on linear isotropic elastic soil transfers a concentric column load. The contact pressure distribution at the footing base will be

A. maximum at the edge and minimum at the centre
B. maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
C. uniform distribution
D. depending on the depth of foundation
Answer: C. Per the official WBPSC key, the contact pressure under the rigid footing is taken as uniformly distributed.
39

The presence of hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) in water causes

A. softening
B. alkalinity
C. acidity
D. bad taste / odour
Answer: C. Hydrogen sulphide makes water acidic/corrosive.
40

The static indeterminacy of the frame shown (with 3 internal hinges, plus hinged and fixed supports)

A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: D. (Figure-based) Static indeterminacy = 15 per the official WBPSC key.
41

Why is the curing period of concrete made with PPC more than that with OPC?

A. In PPC the secondary (pozzolanic) reaction starts after hydration
B. In PPC primary hydration starts at a later stage after adding water
C. In PPC the cement particles are coarser than OPC
D. In PPC gypsum addition is more than OPC
Answer: A. The pozzolanic reaction consumes the lime liberated during hydration and proceeds slowly after primary hydration, needing longer curing.
42

For three-dimensional movement of a weight at a construction site, which machinery is most suitable?

A. Chain hoist
B. Winch
C. Crane
D. Jack
Answer: C. A crane provides lift, horizontal travel and slewing — full 3-D movement.
43

Soil to be used for an earthen road should have a liquid limit less than

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%
Answer: D. Soil used for an earthen road should have a liquid limit less than 35%.
44

In the Marshall test of a bituminous mix, as bitumen content increases, the flow value

A. remains constant
B. decreases first and then increases
C. increases monotonically
D. increases first and then decreases
Answer: C. Flow value increases continuously (monotonically) with bitumen content.
45

Correct order of unit processes in a water treatment plant: Rapid Mixing (RM), Flocculation (F), Primary Sedimentation (PS), Secondary Sedimentation (SS), Chlorination (C), Rapid Sand Filter (RSF)

A. PS → RM → F → SS → RSF → C
B. PS → RSF → F → RM → SS → C
C. PS → F → RM → SS → RSF → C
D. PS → F → SS → RSF → RM → C
Answer: A. Primary sedimentation → rapid mixing (coagulation) → flocculation → secondary sedimentation → rapid sand filter → chlorination.
46

For a reinforced concrete section, the shear stress distribution diagram is

A. Parabolic
B. Circular
C. Parabolic above the neutral axis and Triangular below the neutral axis
D. Parabolic above the neutral axis and Rectangular below the neutral axis
Answer: D. Shear stress is parabolic in the compression (uncracked) zone above the NA and remains constant (rectangular) below the NA down to the tension steel.
47

Find the maximum bending stress at the fixed end of a cantilever of span L carrying a vertical point load P at the free end. The cross-section is a square of side a placed with its diagonal vertical.

A. 6√2 PL/a³
B. 6 PL/a³
C. 12√2 PL/a³
D. 12 PL/a³
Answer: A. M = PL; I = a⁴/12; extreme fibre y = a/√2; Z = a³√2/12 ⇒ σ = PL/Z = 12PL/(√2 a³) = 6√2 PL/a³.
48

For a sample of dry cohesionless soil with friction angle φ, the failure plane is inclined to the major principal plane by an angle equal to

A. φ
B. 45°
C. 45° + φ/2
D. 45° − φ/2
Answer: C. The failure plane is inclined at (45° + φ/2) to the major principal plane.
49

The latitude and departure of a line AB are −75 m and +45.1 m. The whole-circle bearing of line AB is

A. 30°
B. 150°
C. 210°
D. 330°
Answer: B. Latitude −ve (S), departure +ve (E) → SE quadrant. θ = atan(45.1/75) ≈ 31°; WCB = 180° − 31° ≈ 150°.
50

Which sewage treatment method has the inherent problems of odour, ponding and fly nuisance?

A. Activated sludge process
B. UASB process
C. Trickling filters
D. Stabilization ponds
Answer: C. Trickling filters are prone to odour, ponding (media clogging) and Psychoda-fly nuisance.
51

The action of negative skin friction on a pile

A. reduces the allowable load on the pile
B. increases the ultimate load on the pile
C. maintains the working load on the pile
D. reduces the settlement of the pile
Answer: A. Negative skin friction is a downward drag force that reduces the safe/allowable capacity of the pile.
52

The two-dimensional stress at a point is [σxx τxy; τyx σyy] = [100 30; −30 20] MPa. The maximum shear stress is

A. 50 MPa
B. 75 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 110 MPa
Answer: D. Per the official WBPSC key the marked answer is 110 MPa (major principal stress σ₁ = 60 + 50 = 110 MPa).
53

A prismatic simply-supported beam carries two equal point loads P symmetrically placed (four-point bending). The shape of the deflected curve in the central region between the loads is

A. parabolic
B. circular
C. cubic parabola
D. depends on the a/L ratio
Answer: B. The central region is under constant bending moment → constant curvature → the deflected shape is a circular arc.
54

In natural water, hardness is due to the presence of

A. Ca²⁺ and Mn²⁺
B. Na⁺ and K⁺
C. Ca²⁺ and Fe²⁺
D. Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺
Answer: D. Hardness is caused mainly by calcium and magnesium ions.
55

The three governing equation-types in structural analysis are (i) equilibrium, (ii) compatibility, (iii) constitutive. To solve an indeterminate structure, the equations used are

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: B. Per the official WBPSC key, equilibrium and constitutive relations are the marked answer.
56

Camber in highways is provided to take care of

A. Centrifugal force
B. Drainage
C. Off tracking
D. Sight distance
Answer: B. Camber (cross-slope) drains surface water off the carriageway.
57

Find the secondary air pollutant among NO, SO₂, Soot, O₃.

A. NO
B. SO₂
C. Soot
D. O₃
Answer: A. Per the official WBPSC key the marked answer is NO. (Conventionally O₃ is the secondary pollutant.)
58

A vehicle negotiates a transition curve at uniform speed V. If R is the radius of the circular curve and J the allowable jerk (rate of change of radial acceleration), the minimum length of transition curve is

A. R³/(VJ)
B. J³/(RV)
C. V³R/J
D. V³/(RJ)
Answer: D. Rate of change of radial acceleration = V³/(RL) = J ⇒ L = V³/(RJ).
59

Quick sand is

A. moist sand containing small particles
B. a condition that occurs in coarse sand
C. a condition in which a cohesionless soil loses all its strength because of upward flow of water
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Quicksand is a condition (not a soil type): upward seepage makes effective stress zero, so the cohesionless soil loses shear strength.
60

A compound column has two ISMB 300 sections battened at their flanges. Find the critical centre-to-centre distance between the sections for maximum compressive capacity. (Each ISMB: Ixx = 8500 cm⁴, Iyy = 500 cm⁴, A = 50 cm²)

A. √80 cm
B. √160 cm
C. √320 cm
D. √640 cm
Answer: D. Set combined Ixx = Iyy: 2(8500) = 2[500 + 50(d/2)²] ⇒ 25d² = 16000 ⇒ d = √640 cm.
61

The maximum value of the compaction factor in the concrete workability test is

A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2
Answer: B. The compaction factor is a ratio ≤ 1; its theoretical maximum is 1.0.
62

Zero hardness of water is achieved by

A. Lime-soda process
B. Excess-lime process
C. Ion exchange treatment
D. Excess lime and alum treatment
Answer: C. Ion-exchange (resin/zeolite) treatment can reduce hardness to virtually zero; lime-soda leaves residual hardness.
63

At the location of a plastic hinge in the plastic analysis of a structure,

A. radius of curvature is infinite
B. curvature is infinite
C. moment is infinite
D. flexural stress is infinite
Answer: B. A plastic hinge rotates at constant moment Mp while curvature becomes very large (theoretically infinite).
64

A lysimeter is used to measure

A. Infiltration
B. Evaporation
C. Evapotranspiration
D. Vapour pressure
Answer: C. A lysimeter measures evapotranspiration from a soil–plant system.
65

When bitumen is added to soil, it mainly

A. increases cohesion
B. accelerates cohesion
C. acts as a waterproofing agent
D. fills voids
Answer: A. Bitumen added to soil mainly increases cohesion (binding action).
66

The unit in which both sedimentation and sludge digestion take place simultaneously is the

A. Skimming tank
B. Imhoff tank
C. Detritus tank
D. Digestion tank
Answer: B. An Imhoff tank combines sedimentation (upper chamber) and sludge digestion (lower chamber) in one unit.
67

The minimum edge distance in a bolted connection specified by IS 800-2007 should be maintained to avoid

A. rupture of plate
B. shearing of plate
C. bearing of plate
D. tearing of plate
Answer: D. A minimum edge/end distance prevents the bolt from tearing out (shear tear-out) through the edge of the plate.
68

For the truss shown (horizontal load P, members with span/height L), find the force in member QR.

A. Zero
B. P/√2
C. P
D. √2 P
Answer: C. Figure-dependent truss member force — needs the printed joint geometry.
69

Which test is NOT used for workability of concrete?

A. Flow test
B. Vee-Bee test
C. Compacting factor test
D. Air permeability test
Answer: D. Air permeability is a durability test; slump, flow, Vee-Bee and compacting factor measure workability.
70

A basic requirement of an at-grade intersection is

A. the relative angle of approach should be high
B. it should clearly guide the driver
C. the area of conflict should be small
D. the relative speed should be high
Answer: C. A good at-grade intersection minimises the area of conflict (and relative speed).
71

A critical path in project management has

A. zero slack
B. minimum slack
C. maximum slack
D. infinite slack
Answer: B. Critical-path activities have minimum (zero) slack/float.
72

An imaginary line along which bolts in an angle section are placed is known as

A. Rivet line
B. Back line
C. Gauge line
D. All of the above
Answer: C. The line along which bolts/rivets are placed in an angle section is the gauge line.
73

From the level field-book — P: BS 1.655, RL 100.000; Q: BS −0.950, FS −1.500; R: FS 0.750 — find the RL of station R.

A. 103.355 m
B. 103.155 m
C. 101.455 m
D. 100.355 m
Answer: C. HI₁=101.655; RL_Q=101.655−(−1.500)=103.155; HI₂=103.155+(−0.950)=102.205; RL_R=102.205−0.750=101.455 m.
74

The super-elevation in road construction is

A. directly proportional to velocity of vehicles
B. inversely proportional to velocity of pavement
C. directly proportional to velocity of pavement
D. inversely proportional to velocity of pavement
Answer: A. e = V²/(gR), so super-elevation increases (directly) with vehicle speed.
75

Bentonite is used in bored cast-in-situ pile construction mainly

A. to make the soil soft for cutting
B. to support the excavated part (bore) before concreting
C. to set the concrete quickly
D. to separate water to mix with wet concrete
Answer: B. Bentonite slurry stabilizes/supports the borehole walls until concrete is placed.
76

During a clear cool night followed by a hot sunny day, the edges and corners of a rigid-pavement slab will

A. warp downward
B. warp upward
C. warp upwards and downwards
D. warp laterally
Answer: B. Per the official WBPSC key, the slab edges and corners warp upward.
77

To produce Corrosion-Resistant Steel (CRS) bars, which element is added?

A. Carbon
B. Phosphorus
C. Sulphur
D. Copper
Answer: D. CRS/weathering rebars add copper (with chromium and phosphorus) to improve corrosion resistance.
78

A simply supported truss of span 8L (eight panels of length L) and height L carries five concentrated loads of P each at the panel points. The maximum tensile force in the bottom chord is

A. 2P
B. 4P
C. 6P
D. 8P
Answer: B. (Figure-based) Maximum tensile force in the bottom chord = 4P per the official WBPSC key.
79

The minimum cement content in a concrete mix design for durable concrete depends on

A. exposure condition
B. grade of concrete
C. exposure condition + water-cement ratio
D. exposure condition + grade of concrete
Answer: D. Minimum cement content for durable concrete depends on the exposure condition and the grade of concrete.
80

The tendency for general shear failure of an isolated footing in sand, in general, decreases with

A. decreasing footing depth
B. increasing footing width
C. decreasing soil-grain compressibility
D. decreasing inter-granular packing of the sand
Answer: D. General shear failure is typical of dense, well-packed sand; as packing loosens, the mode shifts to local/punching shear.
81

For a simply supported prestressed concrete beam carrying two concentrated loads, the cable in general follows which profile?

A. Straight
B. Parabolic
C. Cubic parabola
D. Trapezoidal
Answer: D. The ideal cable profile mirrors the BM diagram; two point loads give a trapezoidal BMD, hence a trapezoidal cable.
82

For the beam shown (UDL w kN/m over span L, left end fixed/built-in and propped at B), find the reaction at B.

A. 3wL/8
B. 5wL/8
C. 3wL/4
D. wL/4
Answer: A. For a propped cantilever under full-span UDL, the prop (B) reaction = 3wL/8.
83

Reynolds number is the ratio of the inertia force to the

A. surface tension force
B. viscous force
C. gravity force
D. elastic force
Answer: B. Re = inertia force / viscous force.
84

What kind of structural system was used for the Howrah Bridge (Rabindra Setu), Kolkata?

A. Simply supported span
B. Balanced cantilever
C. Cantilever with a suspended span
D. Cable stayed
Answer: C. The Howrah Bridge is a steel cantilever bridge with a central suspended span.
85

Among the following, which crop has the highest value of delta (water depth required)?

A. Wheat
B. Vegetables
C. Rice
D. Cotton
Answer: C. Rice (paddy) requires the greatest depth of water, i.e. the highest delta.
86

Some of the non-toxic metals normally found in natural water are

A. Arsenic, Lead, Mercury
B. Calcium, Sodium, Silver
C. Cadmium, Chromium, Copper
D. Iron, Manganese, Magnesium
Answer: D. Iron, manganese and magnesium are essentially non-toxic (affect taste/hardness); the others contain toxic heavy metals.
87

A 1-hour rainfall of 10 cm has a return period of 50 years. The probability of a 1-hour rainfall of 10 cm or more occurring in each of two successive years is

A. 0.02
B. 0.04
C. 0.0002
D. 0.0004
Answer: D. P = 1/50 = 0.02 per year; for both successive years P×P = 0.02×0.02 = 0.0004.
88

A simply supported prismatic beam carries a transverse UDL w and an axial compressive load P. The transverse-load vs central-deflection curve will be linear if

A. material is linear and P > 0
B. material is linear and P = 0
C. material is nonlinear and P > 0
D. material is nonlinear and P = 0
Answer: B. Linearity requires linear-elastic material AND no axial load; axial compression introduces the (nonlinear) beam-column P-δ effect.
89

For a given discharge, the critical flow depth in an open channel depends on

A. channel geometry only
B. channel geometry and bed slope
C. channel geometry, bed slope and roughness
D. channel geometry, bed slope, roughness and Reynolds number
Answer: A. Critical depth follows Q²/g = A³/T — a function of channel geometry and discharge only (independent of slope/roughness).
90

A frame in a horizontal plane has AB = L, BC = L/2, CD = L/2 and carries a vertical concentrated load P at the free end D (D lies directly below the mid-point of AB). The bending moment at the middle of AB is

A. PL/2 (sagging)
B. PL/2 (hogging)
C. PL (hogging)
D. Zero
Answer: D. Taking the free body from the mid-section of AB to D, the moment of P resolves entirely into torsion of AB (PL/2); the vertical-plane bending moment at the midpoint is zero.
91

A soil sample has natural mass 1.98 kg and volume 0.001 m³; after oven-drying the mass is 1.8 kg. With G = 2.7, the degree of saturation is

A. 0.54
B. 0.61
C. 0.65
D. 0.70
Answer: A. Mw=0.18 kg→Vw=180 cm³; Vs=1.8/2.7/1000=666.7 cm³; Vv=1000−666.7=333.3 cm³; S=180/333.3=0.54.
92

In a reservoir with uncontrolled spillways, the peak of the (routed) outflow hydrograph

A. lies outside the plotted inflow hydrograph
B. lies on the recession part of the plotted inflow hydrograph
C. lies on the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph
D. is higher than the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph
Answer: B. For an uncontrolled spillway, the outflow peak occurs where the outflow curve crosses the recession limb of the inflow hydrograph (maximum storage).
93

Aeration of water is done to remove

A. suspended impurities
B. colour
C. dissolved salts
D. dissolved gases
Answer: D. Aeration drives off dissolved gases (CO₂, H₂S) and adds oxygen.
94

Purlins are generally placed at the nodal points of the rafter in a roof truss so as to avoid

A. axial force in rafter
B. shear force in rafter
C. deflection of rafter
D. bending moment in rafter
Answer: D. Loading the truss only at nodes keeps members in pure axial force; loads between nodes would cause bending in the rafter.
95

The minimum centre-to-centre distance between piles of diameter 500 mm in clay soil is

A. 2.0 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 1.0 m
D. 0.5 m
Answer: B. For friction piles in clay the minimum spacing is about 3×diameter = 3×0.5 = 1.5 m.
96

Two simply supported beams A and B carry the same UDL; the span of A is double that of B. The correct statement is

A. deflection of A = 2 × deflection of B
B. deflection of A = 4 × deflection of B
C. deflection of A = 8 × deflection of B
D. deflection of A = 16 × deflection of B
Answer: D. δ = 5wL⁴/384EI ∝ L⁴; doubling the span gives 2⁴ = 16 times the deflection.
97

The shrinkage index in a soil test is equal to

A. liquid limit + plastic limit
B. plastic limit − liquid limit
C. liquid limit − shrinkage limit
D. shrinkage limit − liquid limit
Answer: C. Standard definition: Shrinkage Index = Plastic Limit − Shrinkage Limit, which does not match the printed options — options need re-verification against the booklet.
98

A thin cylindrical shell of diameter d, length l and thickness t is subjected to internal pressure p. The longitudinal stress in the shell is

A. pd/t
B. pd/2t
C. pd/4t
D. pd/6t
Answer: C. Hoop stress = pd/2t; the longitudinal (axial) stress is half of that = pd/4t.
99

A plot between rainfall intensity versus time at a site is called a

A. hydrograph
B. mass curve
C. hyetograph
D. isohyet
Answer: C. A hyetograph is a plot of rainfall intensity against time.
100

Lacey's silt factor is written as

A. f = 1.75 (d_m)^(1/2)
B. f = 0.01 (d_mm)^(2/3)
C. f = 4.75 (d_mm)^(1/6)
D. f = 1.76 (d_mm)^(1/2)
Answer: D. Lacey's silt factor f = 1.76 √(d_mm), where d_mm is the mean particle size in mm.

Don't just read it — score it.

Attempt the 2020 paper as a real, timed mock test. Get your score with negative marking, your rank among all attempts, and a subject-wise breakdown of where you lost marks.